Cloud Computing

Cloud computing is a technology that uses the internet and central remote servers to maintain data and applications. Cloud computing allows consumers and businesses to use applications without installation and access their personal files at any computer with internet access. This technology allows for much more efficient computing by centralizing storage, memory, processing and bandwidth.

A simple example of cloud computing is Yahoo email or Gmail etc. You dont need a software or a server to use them. All a consumer would need is just an internet connection and you can start sending emails. The server and email management software is all on the cloud ( internet) and is totally managed by the cloud service provider Yahoo , Google etc. The consumer gets to use the software alone and enjoy the benefits. The analogy is , 'If you only need milk , would you buy a cow ?' All the users or consumers need is to get the benefits of using the software or hardware of the computer like sending emails etc. Just to get this benefit (milk) why should a consumer buy a (cow) software /hardware ?

Cloud computing is a paradigm shift following the shift from mainframe to client–server in the early 1980s. Details are abstracted from the users, who no longer have need for expertise in, or control over, the technology infrastructure "in the cloud" that supports them. Cloud computing describes a new supplement, consumption, and delivery model for IT services based on the Internet and it typically involves over the-Internet-provision of dynamically scalable and often virtualized resources.It is a byproduct and consequence of the ease-of-access to remote computing sites provided by the Internet.

The term "cloud" is used as a metaphor for the Internet, based on the cloud drawing used in the past to represent the telephone network, and later to depict the Internet in computer network diagram as an abstraction of the underlying infrastructure it represents. Typical cloud computing providers deliver common business applications online that are accessed from another Web service or software like a Web browser, while the software and data are stored on servers.

Most cloud computing infrastructure consists of services delivered through data centers and built on servers. Clouds often appear as single points of access for all consumers' computing needs. Commercial offerings are generally expected to meet quality of service (QoS) requirements of customers, and typically include SLAs. The major cloud-only service providers include Salesforce, Amazon and Google.

Characteristics
n general, Cloud computing customers do not own the physical infrastructure, instead avoiding capital expenditure by renting usage from a third-party provider. They consume resources as a service and pay only for resources that they use. Many cloud-computing offerings employ the utility computing model, which is analogous to how traditional utility services (such as electricity) are consumed, whereas others bill on a subscription basis. Sharing "perishable and intangible" computing power among multiple tenants can improve utilization rates, as servers are not unnecessarily left idle (which can reduce costs significantly while increasing the speed of application development). A side-effect of this approach is that overall computer usage rises dramatically, as customers do not have to engineer for peak load limits.[15] In addition, "increased high-speed bandwidth" makes it possible to receive the same response times from centralized infrastructure at other sites.

Economics

Cloud computing users can avoid capital expenditure (CapEx) on hardware, software, and services when they pay a provider only for what they use. Consumption is usually billed on a utility (resources consumed, like electricity) or subscription (time-based, like a newspaper) basis with little or no upfront cost. Other benefits of this time sharing-style approach are low barriers to entry, shared infrastructure and costs, low management overhead, and immediate access to a broad range of applications. In general, users can terminate the contract at any time (thereby avoiding return on investment risk and uncertainty), and the services are often covered by service level agreements (SLAs) with financial penalties.

According to Nicholas Carr, the strategic importance of information technology is diminishing as it becomes standardized and less expensive. He argues that the cloud computing paradigm shift is similar to the displacement of electricity generators by electricity grids early in the 20th century.

Although companies might be able to save on upfront capital expenditures, they might not save much and might actually pay more for operating expenses. In situations where the capital expense would be relatively small, or where the organization has more flexibility in their capital budget than their operating budget, the cloud model might not make great fiscal sense. Other factors impacting the scale of any potential cost savings include the efficiency of a company's data center as compared to the cloud vendor's, the company's existing operating costs, the level of adoption of cloud computing, and the type of functionality being hosted in the cloud.

Among the items that some cloud hosts charge for are instances (often with extra charges for high-memory or high-CPU instances); data transfer in and out; storage (measured by the GB-month); I/O requests; PUT requests and GET requests; IP addresses; and load balancing. In some cases, users can bid on instances, with pricing dependent on demand for available instances.

Cloud computing is broken down into three segments: "applications," "platforms," and "infrastructure." Each segment serves a different purpose and offers different products for businesses and individuals around the world.

Applications: It's all On Demand
So far the applications segment of cloud computing is the only segment that has proven useful as a business model.
On Demand software services come in a few different varieties which vary in their pricing scheme and how the software is delivered to the end users. In the past, the end-user would generally purchase a servers and is accessed by the end user over the internet. While this is the most common platform for On Demand software services, there are also some slightly different offerings which can be described as a hybrid of these two platforms. For instance, a program through which the end user pays a license fee, but then accesses the software over the internet from centralized servers is considered a hybrid service.

Who is Offering On Demand Software? - The companies below are already established in the On-Demand software or SaaS business. These companies charge their customers a subscription fee and in return host software on central servers that are accessed by the end user via the internet.

e.g. Google, Salesforce.com, NetSuite, Teleo etc..

Who is Offering Traditional Software? - The following companies have established themselves as traditional software providers. These companies sell licenses to their users, who then run the software from on premise servers.
e.g SAP. Oracle etc..

Platforms:
Many of the companies that started out providing On Demand application services have developed platform services as well. The platform segment of cloud computing refers to products that are used to deploy internet. NetSuite, Amazon, Google, and Microsoft have also developed platforms that allow users to access applications from centralized servers.

Active platforms - The following companies are some that have developed platforms that allow end users to access applications from centralized servers using the internet. Next to each company is the name of their platform.

* Google (GOOG) - Apps Engine
* Amazon.com (AMZN) - EC2
* Microsoft (MSFT) - Windows Live
* Terremark Worldwide (TMRK) - The Enterprise Cloud
* Salesforce.com (CRM) - Force.com
* NetSuite (N) - Suiteflex
* Rackspace Cloud - cloudservers, cloudsites, cloudfiles
* Metrisoft - Metrisoft SaaS Platform

Infrastructure:
The final segment in cloud computing, known as the infrastructure, is very much the backbone of the entire concept. Infrastructure vendors environments (such as Google gears) that allow users to build applications. Cloud storage, such as Amazon's S3, is also considered to be part of the infrastructure segment.

* Major Infrastructure Vendors - Below are companies that provide infrastructure services:
o Google (GOOG) - Managed hosting, development environment
o International Business Machines (IBM) - Managed hosting
o SAVVIS (SVVS) - Managed hosting
o Terremark Worldwide (TMRK) - Managed hosting
o Amazon.com (AMZN) - Cloud storage
o Rackspace Hosting (RAX) - Managed hosting & cloud computing


Key features
* Agility improves with users' ability to rapidly and inexpensively re-provision technological infrastructure resources.

* Cost is claimed to be greatly reduced and capital expenditure is converted to operational expenditure. This ostensibly lowers barriers to entry, as infrastructure is typically provided by a third-party and does not need to be purchased for one-time or infrequent intensive computing tasks. Pricing on a utility computing basis is fine-grained with usage-based options and fewer IT skills are required for implementation (in-house).

* Device and location independence:enable users to access systems using a web browser regardless of their location or what device they are using (e.g., PC, mobile). As infrastructure is off-site (typically provided by a third-party) and accessed via the Internet, users can connect from anywhere.

* Multi-tenancy enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users thus allowing for:
o Centralization of infrastructure in locations with lower costs (such as real estate, electricity, etc.)
o Peak-load capacity increases (users need not engineer for highest possible load-levels)
o Utilization and efficiency improvements for systems that are often only 10–20% utilized.

* Reliability is improved if multiple redundant sites are used, which makes well designed cloud computing suitable for business continuity and disaster recovery. Nonetheless, many major cloud computing services have suffered outages, and IT and business managers can at times do little when they are affected.

* Scalability via dynamic ("on-demand") provisioning of resources on a fine-grained, self-service basis near real-time, without users having to engineer for peak loads. Performance is monitored, and consistent and loosely coupled architectures are constructed using web services as the system interface.One of the most important new methods for overcoming performance bottlenecks for a large class of applications is data parallel programming on a distributed data grid.

* Security could improve due to centralization of data, increased security-focused resources, etc., but concerns can persist about loss of control over certain sensitive data, and the lack of security for stored kernels. Security is often as good as or better than under traditional systems, in part because providers are able to devote resources to solving security issues that many customers cannot afford. Providers typically log accesses, but accessing the audit logs themselves can be difficult or impossible. Furthermore, the complexity of security is greatly increased when data is distributed over a wider area and / or number of devices.
* Maintenance cloud computing applications are easier to maintain, since they don't have to be installed on each user's computer. They are easier to support and to improve since the changes reach the clients instantly.
* Metering cloud computing resources usage should be measurable and should be metered per client and application on daily, weekly, monthly, and annual basis. This will enable clients on choosing the vendor cloud on cost and reliability (QoS).

Issues:
Privacy
The Cloud model has been criticized by privacy advocates for the greater ease in which the companies hosting the Cloud services control, and thus, can monitor at will, lawfully or unlawfully, the communication and data stored between the user and the host company. Instances such as the secret NSA program, working with AT&T, and Verizon, which recorded over 10 million phone calls between American citizens, causes uncertainty among privacy advocates, and the greater powers it gives to telecommunication companies to monitor user activity. While there have been efforts (such as US-EU Safe Harbor) to "harmonise" the legal environment, providers such as Amazon still cater to major markets (typically the United States and the European Union) by deploying local infrastructure and allowing customers to select "availability zones

Security
The relative security of cloud computing services is a contentious issue which may be delaying its adoption.[82] Some argue that customer data is more secure when managed internally, while others argue that cloud providers have a strong incentive to maintain trust and as such employ a higher level of security.

HP QC Certification Questions and Answers: 5

Q. 41: To set a Quick Test Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose _________

A. Template Test   

B. Template Tree     

C. Template Plan    

D. Template

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 42: You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.

A. True                                             

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 43: A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is _________ on your machine.

A. Not activated       

B. Not installed      

C. Not enabled        

D. Not set

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 44: A ________ link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test.

A. Link To Test         

B. Move To Test       

C. Go To Test                     

D. Test

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 45: In the Test Plan module, you create ________ by selecting requirements to link to a test.

A. RTM          

B. Requirements coverage         

C. Test coverage     

D. SRS

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 46: Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create _______ by selecting tests to link to a requirement.

A. RTM          

B. Requirements coverage           

C. Test coverage   

D. SRS

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 47: A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.

A. True                                  

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 48: You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this feature using the __________ parameter in Site Administration

A. ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B. ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C. ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D. None of above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 49: Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added requirements coverage, it may already exist.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 50: You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.

A. True                                 

B. False

HP QC Certification Questions and Answers: 4

Q. 31: QA Manager changes a requirement from a ___________ status to a Reviewed status once it is approved.

A. Released             

B. Tested                  

C. Not reviewed     

D. None of the above

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 32: You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel, or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you must first install the appropriate _____________

A. HP Third Party add-in.                           

B. HP Quality Center add-in.
C. HP Quality Center                                             

D. HP Quality Center License

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 33: The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a _________ view.

A. Flat            

B. Hierarchical         

C. Flat-hierarchical 

D. Flat non-hierarchical

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 34: The _________ view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test coverage status.

A. Coverage Analysis                               

B. Coverage Requirements
C. Coverage                                     

D. Coverage Tests

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 35: You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key ___________.

A. F1                          

B. F9             

C. Ctrl + R                 

D. Alt + R

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 36: You can use the ____________to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Requirements module.

A. Script Edit            

B. Scriptor Editor     

C. Script Editor      

D. Script Editing

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 37: The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your _________

A. Requirements                            

B. All requirements                                     

C. Some requirements                  

D. Tedious requirements

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

38: You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.

A. True                                              

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 39: You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the _________ command.

A. Search                 

B. Find                      

C. Search All                       

D. Find All

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 40: You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the ___________command.

A. Replace               

B. Replace All            

C. Find & Replace  

D. Replace & Find

HP QC Certification Questions and Answers: 3

Q. 21: The ________ can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them about important maintenance or other issues.

A. Site administer               

B. Site Controller
C. Site Analyser                  

D: Site administrator

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 22: Quality Center organizes and displays data in ________

A. Grids         

B. Trees                    

C. Folders                 

D: Both A & B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 23: You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear, and by changing column size.

A. True                                  

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 24: You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 25: When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced ________ on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or defects.

A. Secondary filter                          

B. Primary filter
C. Cross filter                                             

D: Second filter

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 26: By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ________

A. Increasing order                         

B. Decreasing order
C. Order in which they were added.     

D: Order in which they were deleted.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 27: You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the Clipboard.

A. True                                              

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 28: You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ________

A. Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B. Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C. Requirements and Defects modules.
D: Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 29: If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 30: Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.

A. True                                 

B. False

HP QC Certification Questions and Answers: 2

Q. 11: You access Quality Center over the _______ via a Web browser.

A. Internet                 

B. a corporate intranet        

C. Mobile Internet   

D: Both A & B

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 12:Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking application defects, enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial detection until resolution.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 13: Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:

A. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C. Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D: Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 14: Each Quality Center project is supported by a _______ that stores project information.

A. Root folder                       

B. Database            

C. Flat File                

D: Both B & C

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 15: Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The_______ determines the privileges that the user has within a project.

A. QC group                                     

B. User_Account group
C. Account group                            

D: user group

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 16: You can import data from _______ to a Quality Center project.

A. Word or Notepad                        

B. Word or Wordpad
C. Word or Excel                           

D: Word or Power Point

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 17: You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 18: Quality Center prompts you to install _______ if it is not already installed on your machine.

A. Microsoft Java 2.0                                  

B. Microsoft Visio 13.0
C. Microsoft Visual studio 2.0       

D: Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 19: Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:

A. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D: Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 20: When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.

A. True                                 

B. False

HP QC Certification Questions and Answers 1

Q. 1: You can export the data in a grid as a ______

A. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B. Text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C. Text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D: Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 2: When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 3: A ______ indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.

A. Green flag                                   

B. Pink flag
C. Red flag                          

D: Blue flag

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 4: Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability notifications. You can use ______ flags to remind yourself to follow up on something.

A. Alert Me    

B. Follow up                       

C. Follow Me            

D: Follow

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 5: Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 6: You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 7: A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.

A. True                                 

B. False

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 8: A _________ is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.

A. Personal view                             

B. My view
C. Favorite view                             

D: Fav view

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 9: By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ______ parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A. FAVORITES_DEPTH                           

B. FAVORITES-DEPTH
C. FAVORITE_DEPTH                                          

D: FAVORITE_DEPTHS

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 10: You save favorite views in either a ______ folder or a _______ folder. Views in a
________ folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ________ folder are accessible only to the user who created them.

A. Public, private, public, private                       

B. Root, Base, Root, Base,
C. Locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked  

D: Both B & C

How to disabled/enabled Delete permission in in Defect module?

User group has no DELETE permission in DEFECT module. How can I enable  it for user group in all domain including all projects within it?

And the following are the different answers I got for this :

1. The first solution:

I am using QC 10.0, and here is how I would try to solve this issue in QC -- note these changes are at the project level (not domain level):

* Navigate to (Tools, Customize) menu commands.
* Click the (Project Users) link.
* Find your user in the list and note to which group they belong.
* Click the (Groups) link.
* Select the group to which your user belongs.
* Click the [Change] button - in the Permissions group on the right side of the screen. This displays a [Permission Settings] window.
* Navigate to [Defects] tab.
* The 3rd command in the displayed list is [Delete Defect]. Enable this checkbox to allow all users belonging to this group to be able to delete defects.

Note: Remember that any permissions you apply on a group level are going to affect all users in that group. If you don't intend for this consequence, then move the user to a different group / create a new group with the exact permissions desired and then move the user to that group.

2. Second Solution:

You can do this with some programming using both the QC Site Admin API and the QC OTA API.
It will go like this:
- Get all projects through the site admin API
- Connect to each project using the OTA API
- For each group in the project, remove the delete permissions using the OTA API

You will find a lot of help on the HP forums ( http://forums11.itrc.hp.com/service/forums/categoryhome.do?categoryId=895 ).

3. Third Solution :

1. You can give project administrator permission to all projects from site administration.
2. You can create a group as a copy of QATester group and add the delete permission to it and add this user to the new group in each project.

Unfortunatelly QC doesn't have yet many administration control feature that can ease you job here...
Unless you have Premier edition and all you project are connected to a template but then again you would have to accept a template change in each and every project.

 4. Fourth Solution: 

You can ask your DBA to write a query to delete the particular record and run the same for all the project schemas for which you want to delete.

5. Fifth Solution:

You can easily write a QTP Script to perform this task for you. Also the built in Admin user does have a password so you can log in with it, this account has full rights. The default password used to be tdtdtd . Oddly enough that is also the password to open up the VB code behind the Excel macro used to upload test scripts.

Site Connections in QC 9.0 Site Administartor

Through this tab, you can monitor the users currently connected to a Quality Center server.
For each user, you can view the domain and project being used, the user’s machine name, the time the user first logged in to the project, and the time the most recent action was performed. You can also view the client type
connection to the Quality Center server.
You can also view the licenses that are currently being used by each user. The Mercury Quality Center license indicates that the user can access all modules in a specific project. The Defects Module license indicates that
the user can access only the Defects module.You can send messages to users connected to your Quality Center projects. You can also disconnect users from projects.

There are three sub tabs under site connections. These are
1. Disconnect: It is used to disconnect user from quality center.
Steps: i) Click any user from list.
          ii) Click on Disconnect. The selected user is disconnected from quality center.

This feature is mainly used when creating project from source project. And some user are already log in to source project. When you create new project from source project, you should first check whether users are login to source project or not. If they are login you can disconnect them or inform them to disconnect.

2. Send Message: It is used to send message to connected user.
Steps: i) Click any user/group from list.
         ii) Click on Send Message. it opens send message dialog box. You can type message and send .
This feature mainly used if some user is login to quality center and you want to disconnect him for some administrative task.

3. Group By:
There are two options: 'Group By Project' and 'Group By User'
By default it display list of users.
If you select 'Group By Project': It sorted out list by ascending order of domain name. Inside them there are project names and then there are user names those are connected to quality center. This is mostly used options because you can check it for whether for some specific project users are connected or not.


Group By User: It sorted out list by ascending order of user name. Inside that it contains the domain name and project name and all user details.

 

Enabling LDAP Authentication for Users in QC 9.0

You can allow users to log in to Quality Center using their LDAP passwords, instead of Quality Center passwords.

When using LDAP authentication, users are authenticated against LDAP using the distinguished names (DN) that are stored in the Domain Authentication property in the Quality Center database. When the user
attempts to log in, and the DN information in Quality Center is invalid, the user is unable to log in to Quality Center.You can enhance the search so that when the DN information is invalid, Quality Center will also search on the LDAP server, using the LDAP import settings defined in Site Administration. If the user is found, the DN is updated in Quality Center, and an automatic login attempt is performed. To set this extended search, define a comma-separated list for the LDAP_SEARCH_USER_CRITERIA Site Configuration parameter. The possible values are username, email, fullname, phone, description. The order of the properties defines their priority if multiple results are found. For example, if the parameter is set to username and email, and two users are
found with the same user name on the LDAP server, their e-mail addresses are checked. If more than one user is found answering the set properties, an error message is returned. If the search for the user succeeds, the user is logged in to Quality Center.

To enable LDAP authentication for users:
1 In Site Administration, click the Site Users tab.
2 Click the User Settings button and choose Authentication Settings. The Authentication Settings dialog box opens.
3 Under Authentication type, select LDAP to set the authentication type as LDAP for all users.
4 In the Directory provider URL box, type the URL of the LDAP server (ldap://:).
5 Click the Test Connection button to test the URL of the LDAP server.
6 Click OK.

QC 9.0 Site administration

Using Site Administration, you create and maintain Quality Center projects, users, and servers. You can also define site administrators and change site administrator passwords.

SiteAdministration contains the following tabs:
➤ Site Projects : It is used to manage your Quality Center projects. This includes adding new domains and projects, querying project data, restoring projects, renaming projects, and activating or deactivating projects.
You can also upgrade projects from a previous Quality Center version to the current version.

➤ Site Users: It is used to add new users and define user properties, including changing passwords.

➤ Site Connections: It is used to monitor the users currently connected to a Quality Center server.

➤ Licenses: It is used to monitor the total number of Quality Center licenses in use and to modify the license key number.

➤ Servers: Used to modify Quality Center server information, such as the log file and mail protocol.


➤ DB Servers: Used to manage your database servers. This includes adding a new database server, editing a server’s connection string, changing a server’s default administrator user name and password, and changing a user password.

➤ Site Configuration: It is used to modify Quality Center configuration parameters.

➤ Site Analysis: It is used to monitor the number of licensed Quality Center users connected to your projects at specific points over a period of time.

Tools: Site Administration also includes the Tools button on the upper-right corner of the Site Administration window. Choose Migration Tool to migrate any projects you created in TestDirector to Quality Center.